Just had a call from my broker asking me to buy back a spread that was partly in the money. I had today’s $AMZN 702.5/707.5 call spread. The broker said I would have to close it before the bell because the short leg was in the money. Is that right on a spread? I don’t remember ever having to close a spread because one leg was in the money. I thought that was what the other leg was for, to cover that. Any ideas there why? Was it because of the large dollar value of AMZN? Any explanations would be helpful here. I went ahead and closed it, but didn’t really understand why I had to do so.